If a woman is "raped" by her husband, that's prima facie that she should not remain married to him because she no longer is part of the union.

It is also prima facie evidence that she no longer serves as a "wife", so he should proceed to "un-marry" her and find a more compatible mate.

Both should seek a divorce at a minimum.

If either sustains physical injury, then there should be police investigation and appropriate domestic abuse prosecution.

In a marital situation, it's not altogether clear what constitutes "rape". There may be mitigating circumstances which are altogether different than a random rape in a secluded park after an abduction. The criminal process has many degrees of freedom in determining innocence and guilt in different cases.

You are of more of an absolutist, black/white mentality and would probably make a poor judge.

PS - your tea analogy is kind'a silly, but I can see how it would appeal to you.